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The Ordinances of the New Testament

By W.G. Schell

 

 

Introduction

 

        The experience of holiness, or Christian perfection, is the mainspring of all gospel truth. It was doubtless the hindrance to the development of the apostasy in apostolic times mentioned by Paul in 2 Thess. 2:7. And if the possessions of holiness by the apostolic church kept back the apostasy so long as it was retained within the hearts of her members, may we not well look for a return to the pure doctrines of Christianity as we in the present reformation emanate from the dark wilderness of the apostasy by means of our return to the experience of apostolic holiness?

 

        Isaiah predicted that the ransomed of the Lord should return upon the way of holiness unto Zion. Zion is a metaphor signifying the New Testament. See Heb. 12:18-24. Therefore to return to Zion is to return to the true church and doctrine of Christ as set forth in the New Testament. This prediction we are now seeing fulfilled in the breaking forth of the light that was to shine in the “evening time.”

 

        God has led his people out of the dark theories that have originated under the apostasy, in respect to the holy observances enjoined by our Saviour, and we feel it our duty to set forth the true New Testament teaching in respect to the ordinances of Christ, that we may if possible lend a helping hand to our much beloved brethren in Christ, who are struggling to unlearn the dark theories they have gathered in mystic Babylon.

 

        The word “ordinance” in this little volume shall be applied in the sense of a ceremony, and in this light we may consider three divine institutions of our Saviour–Baptism, Feet-washing, and the Communion Supper.

 

        At the close of the work we shall notice two other scriptural commandments, the Holy Kiss and the Lifting up of Holy Hands, which are not included in our application of the word “ordinance,” but because generally neglected, we shall briefly consider them.

 

        Some pretended holiness-teachers affirm that to teach and practice the ordinances is but a hindrance to the progress of holiness, but such sentiments cannot be imbibed by a pure heart. By urging upon the people a strict obedience to all the Word we accelerate rather than retard the progress of the cause of holiness; for the very principle of obedience lies in the experience of holiness, and there is no holiness without obedience. Peter taught that the sanctification of the Spirit was unto obedience (1 Pet. 1:2), and I should like to know how I, by teaching the brethren to strictly obey all the ordinances instituted by our Saviour am going to retard the progress of a sanctification unto obedience. The very experience of holiness constrains me to teach and practice all the divine institutions of our Saviour, and I am persuaded that those who oppose these sacred works have not the apostolic experience of sanctification unto obedience.

 

        Obedience is essential to prove our love to God. “If ye love me, keep my commandments.” John 14:15. “If a man love me, he will keep my words.” Ver. 23. “He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me.” Ver. 21. “He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings.” Ver. 24. “For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grevious.” 1 John 5:3. According to these several texts they are deceived who profess love to God while possessed with a spirit of disobedience. We are not to estimate our love from some peculiar sensation in our bosom, but from the spirit of true obedience, without which we are loving in word and in tongue only.

 

        By obedience we also prove ourselves the friends of Jesus. “Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you.” John 15:13. How inappropriate the name of “Friends” assumed by the Quakers, who oppose all the precious ordinances instituted by our Saviour. Such generally make great pretensions to piety and wear a sanctimonious air to make themselves appear sweet and pure, but if we stand upon the Word, by the standard of which alone uprightness is to be imputed, we cannot acknowledge them true friends of Christ.

 

        A spirit of obedience is necessary to prove ourselves in possession of a saving knowledge of God. “He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.” 1 John 2:4. “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.” 2 John 9.

 

        We must take a radical stand upon these plain teachings of the Bible, and let whomsoever the Word unchristianizes become unchristianized. We cannot acknowledge those who oppose the sacred institutions of our Saviour to be the servants of God. Neither can we acknowledge those who teach against them to be led by the Holy Ghost. These declarations may be by some considered harsh, but if they be carefully weighed by those whose hearts are filled with trueness to God’s word, it will be discovered that is only Christian loyalty.

 

        In conclusion of these introductory remarks we wish briefly to call attention to another false idea advanced by those who oppose the ordinances of Christ. It is, that the ordinances always divide the Christian people, and are the principle cause of division among Christians. If this be true, we should like to know the cause of so much strife and division among those who are infected with the antiordinance ideas. There is no more dissentient spirit upon earth than that which propagates antiordinancism. Quakerism herself, the mother of all these God-dishonoring ordinance-opposing heresies, has been divided into several jangling factions. I had far rather adhere to Paul’s idea of the cause of division: “Whereas there is among you envyings, and strife, and divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men?” 1 Cor. 3:3.

 

The Abolished Ordinances

        On every Bible doctrine, inspiration has given us a few texts which seemingly contradict the general voice of the Scriptures. This is true of every other, and none the less of the doctrine of the ordinances. Hence, many who do not live near enough to God to receive correct interpretations from him, who only knoweth the word of God (Rev. 19:12, 13), often, in their blindness, misconstrue these texts into a deceptive doctrine directly opposite to the pure doctrine of Christianity. Such is the delusion under which holiness-fighters, water-salvationists, antiordinance people, etc., are laboring.

 

        But the texts which seemingly contradict the general voice of the Bible on any Christian doctrine, are not antagonistic, but have been, by the mind of inspiration, so mysteriously arranged as to prevent the carnal-minded man from illegally obtaining a correct understanding of the holy Scriptures (See Luke 8:10). But they are easily interpreted in harmony with the uniform voice of holy writ, when viewed in the true light of the Spirit of God.

 

        We shall proceed to quote, and show the true meaning of the texts which fighters of New Testament ordinances wrest to substantiate their doctrine.

 

        “Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace.” Eph. 2:15.

 

        It is very evident that this text teaches the abolition of something, but to my mind it is the wonder of the age that intelligent and cultured human minds can see in it the abolition of any of the ordinances of the New Testament. They could not without infernal assistance. Now, Mr. Ordinance-fighter, if you will allow me to catechise you upon this text, I believe, by the help of the Lord, I can make you see its true meaning.

 

        Q. What does this text say Christ abolished?

        Ans. “The law of commandments contained in ordinances.”

        This expression signifies the ten-commandment code, encircled with all the ceremonies of the Mosaic system. So the text under consideration only teaches the abolition of the Mosaic system. No mention is made of any of the holy observances instituted by Christ.

 

        Q. What else does Paul call that which he says Christ has abolished?

        Ans. He calls it “the middle wall of partition” between the Jews and the Gentiles. Ver. 14. Also, in verse 15 he calls it an “enmity” between the Jews and the Gentiles.

        Here we have another key which will unlock to our minds a true conception of that which is abolished. The law of Moses only enjoined the Jewish nation, thus actually cutting off or separating that nation from all others; hence was a real wall of partition between Jews and Gentiles. The entire New Testament system is enjoined upon all nations (Matt. 28:19, 20; Mark 16:15); therefore, can not be ranked with the abolished “enmity” between the Jews and Gentiles.

 

        Q. Why did Christ abolish the Mosaic system?

        Ans. “For to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; and that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby.” Ver. 15:16.

        It is here stated that Christ abolished the Mosaic system, that he might effect a reconciliation of the entire human family unto God. From this we see that the abolition took place coincident with the great reconciliation. So we have only to learn the date of this reconciliation, to know the date of the abolition. If we turn to Rom. 5:10, we will see the time of reconciliation clearly set forth: “For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.” Here we see the date of the reconciliation fixed at the time of Christ’s death, which, as we have already seen, is the time of the abolition.

        We will now consider another ordinance-fighters’ text: “Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; and, having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a show of them openly, triumphing over them in it (Col. 2:14, 15).” Now, Mr. Ordinance-fighter, if you do not object, we will continue our catechising upon this text.

 

        Q. What does this text say Christ blotted out?

        Ans. “The handwriting of ordinances.”

 

        Q. Is there anything in this text that will give us any clue to the date of the blotting out of the handwriting of ordinances?

        Ans. Yes, it tells us Christ blotted out the handwriting of ordinances by “nailing it to his cross,” referring thus again to the death of Christ as the date of abolition. This is the only date of abolition mentioned in the New Testament. Ordinance-fighters seeing baptism, feetwashing, and the Lord’s supper commanded by inspiration, and observed by the apostolic church after the Saviour’s death, try, in their dishonesty, to fix the date of abolition later than the death of Christ. But all such are teachers of error, and in the name of Jesus we defy them to substantiate by the sacred writing of the New Testament any other date of abolition than the death of Christ. All, therefore, that Jesus abolished, he abolished at the time of his death. And what he did not then abolish has never been abolished by him. If he abolished baptism, feet-washing, and the communion supper, we say amen to their abolition. But if he abolished them not at his death, he has never abolished them. And if Jesus has not abolished the New Testament ordinances, nobody else has a right to abolish them, and we are not disposed to accept any of their abolitions.

 

        We have seen that it was “the handwriting or ordinances’’ that Jesus blotted out and nailed to the cross at his death. Therefore baptism, feet-washing, and the Lord’s supper cannot be included in the code which the Lord blotted out, for none of these were in handwriting at that time.

 

        The very language employed by the apostle to set forth the blotting out of the “handwriting of ordinances” proves he had no reference to any of the New Testament ordinances. He says Christ “took it out of the way.” By this expression we understand Paul to teach that Jesus only abolished that which was in the way of, or a hindrance unto the great work of redemption which he came to accomplish. This is not true of any of the ordinances of the New Testament. It is not only preposterous, but base and criminal even to think that Jesus would institute observances which would hinder his work of redemption, and which he was compelled to blot out before his plan could prove a success. Such a blunder would prove our Lord not infallible.

 

        The Mosaic law, having been enjoined upon one nation only, was a real hindrance to the gospel of Christ. Under it Jesus could only send his gospel to the Jews, and it was not until the law was abolished at the Saviour’s death, that the Gentile nations could receive the gospel. Before the Saviour’s death, both himself and his apostles preached only to the Jews. He forbade his apostles to preach to the Gentiles. Matt. 10:5, 6.

 

        But after his death had taken the law of the Jews out of the way, we hear him commanding his apostles, “Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.” Mark 16:15. “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.” Matt. 28:19.

 

        The conclusion drawn by the apostle immediately after he shows the blotting out of the “handwriting of ordinances,’’ proves that he had exclusive reference to the Old Testament system. He says, “Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.” Col. 2:16, 17.

 

        If it were the ordinances of the New Testament that Paul declares blotted out and nailed to the cross in verses 14 and 15, verses 16 and 17 would read, “Let no man therefore judge you in baptism, or in feet-washing, or in the communion supper.” But no mention is made of anything pertaining to the New Testament. Every thought contained in either the text or the context proves that the apostle had exclusive reference to the law of Moses.

 

        Heb. 9:10 is also used in a wrested manner by ordinance-fighters, against the New Testament ordinances. The language of Scripture itself so clearly explains this text, that little more is needed by way of commentation than the mere insertion of a few verses of the context. We will insert verses 8-11.

 

        “The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing: which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience; which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation. But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building.” Heb. 9:8-11.

 

        “The time of reformation” mentioned in verse 10 was the coming of Christ and the ushering in of the gospel dispensation.

 

        This “which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances,” mentioned in verse 10, is the “first tabernacle” mentioned in verse 8. The first tabernacle was the one Moses pitched in the wilderness, which pertained to the first covenant, or Old Testament. Verse 1. So it is very clearly to be seen that the ordinances mentioned were those which belonged to the service of the tabernacle under the Old Testament.

 

        The first tabernacle is styled “a figure for the time then present,” in verse 9. By this is meant that it was a figure, or type, of the greater and more perfect tabernacle (the Church of God) pitched by the Lord Jesus Christ. See verse 11 and chapter 8:2. The entire law system was one of types and shadows, which met their fulfillment in the setting up of the New Testament system. And while the Old Testament and its ordinances were being taken away, the New Testament and its ordinances were being set up.

 

        Col. 2:20 is also sometimes resorted to by ordinance-fighters, which we might justly pronounce their last resort. I am sure the text, together with the two succeeding verses, explains itself. Let us quote them. “Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances (touch not; taste not; handle not; which all are to perish with the using), after the commandments and doctrines of men?”

 

        The reader will observe that the sentence is not completed in the twentieth verse, and as the twenty-first and a part of the twenty-second verse is in parenthesis, we must read the parenthesis to find the end of the sentence. We can find no proper end of the sentence until we reach the interrogation point at the end of the twenty-second verse. Dropping out the parenthesis, for the sake of connecting both ends of the sentence, the question reads “Wherefore, if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to the ordinances, after the commandments and doctrines of men?”

 

        The reader will quickly comprehend that this makes no reference to ordinances enjoined by the Lord, but to ordinances after the commandments and doctrines of men; that is, such ordinances as are gotten up by men.

 

 

When the New Testament Came into Force

        “And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance. For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. For a testament is of force after men are dead otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.” Heb. 9:15-17.

 

        The apostle here shows that as the will of a man comes into force at his death, so the New Testament came into force at the death of the Saviour. This is the same date at which the Old Testament was abolished, as we have seen in the preceding chapter.

 

        The claim of ordinance-fighters that baptism, feetwashing, and the Lord’s supper are not to be observed in the new dispensation, because they were instituted under the Old Testament, and before the New Testament came into force is a very weak argument, because the whole New Testament system was, and of necessity had to be, introduced before the death of the Saviour. As we have seen before, the New Testament came into force at the death of Christ, in the same sense that a man’s will comes into force at his death, and it would hardly be proper to say an addition to a will would be legal after the testator’s death.

 

        Mark shows that the introduction of the New Testament commenced with the baptism of John. The following are his words: “The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God…John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.” Mark 1:1-4.

 

        Jesus also taught, “The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached.” Luke 16:16.

 

        Taking all the aforesaid thoughts into consideration, we are enabled to see that the doctrine of the New Testament was introduced between the time when John began to cry in the wilderness, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand,” and the crucifixion of Christ. As the ordinances of baptism, feet-washing, and the Lord’s supper were instituted during that time, they are of the New Testament.

 

 

The Three New Testament Ordinances

 

  Baptism 

        Water baptism is one of the ordinances of the New Testament, and not, as some affirm, of the Old. We find no trace of it, as practiced by Christians, in the Old Testament. There is no inspired proof of its existence earlier than John the Baptist; with whose preaching, as we have seen in the previous chapter, begins the introduction of the gospel.

 

        But concerning John’s baptism, was it from heaven, or of men? Matt. 21:25. It was not of his own invention, because John testified that some one had sent him to baptize. John 1:33. From whom did John receive his commission? “There was a man sent from God whose name was John.” John 1:6.

 

        The baptism of John was approved by all the persons in the godhead. It was approved by Christ when he received baptism at the prophet’s hands. It was approved by the Holy Ghost when he descended upon the Saviour at the time of his baptism, in the visible form of a dove. It was approved by the Father when he spoke concerning his Son on the occasion of his baptism, “This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.”

 

        But Jesus did not only approve the baptism of John, he was himself the institutor of a baptism now known as Christian baptism, which, though not differing from the baptism of John with respect to its mode, is administered for a different purpose. We read of Jesus administering baptism in John 3:22. He did not baptize with his own hands, but by proxy. “Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John (though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples).” John 4:1, 2.

 

        While the law of Moses was still standing, baptism, as well as all other principles of the doctrine of Christ, was taught and administered unto Jews only. If, therefore, baptism had been, as the ordinance-fighters affirm, abolished at the death of Christ, no Gentile would ever have received it.

 

        But ordinance-fighters are mistaken. We find Jesus forty days after his resurrection, upon the mount of Olives just before his ascension, commissioning his ministers to preach and administer baptism unto all nations. “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost” Matt. 28:19. “Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved.” Mark 16:15, 16.

 

        Opposers of the ordinances are often heard saying that the baptism Jesus commissioned his ministers to administer to all nations is spirit baptism. This must be considered an error, for three reasons.

        1. There is nothing in the contexts to show that the word “baptize” is used in a metaphoric sense, and in such cases it must always be taken in a literal sense.

        2. It is to be administered by men, and men cannot baptize with the Holy Spirit. Holy men can pray for, and lay their hands upon, and exercise faith for those who are seeking, but God only can impart the Holy Ghost.

        3. The apostles understood the commission in a literal sense, because we see them throughout the book of Acts continuing to preach and practice water baptism.

 

        On the day of Pentecost, Peter taught baptism, as follows: “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.” Acts 2:38.

 

        That he here enjoined water baptism, is evident from the fact that he makes a distinction between baptism and the reception of the Holy Ghost. In obedience to Peter’s teaching, the three thousand converted on the day of Pentecost proceeded at once to be baptized. It was water baptism that those converts received on that day, because they did not receive the Holy Ghost until a later date. See Acts 4:31.

 

        After the persecution had driven nearly all the members of the church from Jerusalem, we read that “Philip went down to the city of Samaria, and preached Christ unto them.” Acts 8:5.

 

        “But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.” Vs. 12.

 

        The baptism they received at the hands of Philip was of water, because the language immediately following shows that they had not received the Holy Ghost. “Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John: who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost: (for as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus).  Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost.” Verses 14-17.

 

        No man of candor can fail to see in the above, that the Samaritans received water baptism. They were converted and baptized in a meeting held by Philip, and received the Holy Ghost in a meeting held by Peter and John.

 

        Surely none can deny that the eunuch was baptized in the water. The words of Scripture are sufficient to settle this point. “And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him. And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more: and he went on his way rejoicing.” Acts 8:36-39.

 

        It is also very evident that water baptism was administered in the case of Paul. For after Ananias had laid his hands on Paul for the reception of the Holy Ghost, he commanded him to arise and be baptized (Acts 9:17, 22:16). And we read of him, that “he received sight forthwith, and arose, and was baptized.” Acts 9:18.

 

        As his baptism took place subsequent to his reception of the Holy Ghost, how could we draw any other sensible conclusion than that it was a baptism by water?

 

        The next instance of the teaching of water baptism in the inspired records, we find in the tenth chapter of Acts. It is best set forth in the words of Scripture itself.

 

        “While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on them which heard the word. And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord.” Verses 44-48.

 

        That Peter here taught water baptism to Cornelius and his household is too clear to be denied by any one. They had received the Holy Ghost after which Peter asked, “Can any man forbid water,” etc., and then he commanded them to be baptized.

 

        But the ordinance-fighters claim that about this time Peter received different light, by which he saw that previous to this time he had been in error on the ordinance question, and that after this date he ceased to teach and administer water baptism. This they gather from his words before the church at Jerusalem, when they held him at fault for preaching unto the Gentile household of Cornelius. The following are the words they thus wrest: “Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost. Forasmuch then as God gave them the like gift as he did unto us, who believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, what was I, that I could withstand God?” Acts 11:16, 17.

 

        These words the antiordinance people regard as Peter’s confession that he had done wrong in teaching Cornelius and his household to be baptized, when nothing of the kind is hinted at.

 

        In the first place let it be remembered that Peter was not faulted by the church for teaching Cornelius to be baptized, but as Cornelius was a Gentile, they faulted him, saying, “Thou wentest in to men uncircumcised, and didst eat with them.” Ver. 3. At that date the church in general had not learned that Gentiles as well as the Jews were entitled to salvation. This is more clearly set forth in verse 19 – “Now they which were scattered abroad upon the persecution that arose about Stephen traveled as far as Phenice, and Cyprus, and Antioch, preaching the word to none but unto the Jews only.” Thinking, as the above clearly shows, that none but Jews were to be saved, they thought Peter had committed an offense when he carried the gospel to Cornelius.

 

        In defense of what he had done, Peter related to them how God had showed him with the vision of the sheet knit at the four corners that Gentiles as well as Jews were entitled to salvation (verses 4-10); and how God had commanded him to go and preach the gospel to Cornelius (verse 12); and how an angel had appeared to Cornelius, and commanded him to send for Peter. Ver. 13. Then he told how, while he was preaching to Cornelius’ household, God poured out the Holy Ghost upon them. Ver. 17. After that he asks, “What was I, that I could withstand God?” Not intending by these words to convey the idea that he had withstood God when he had commanded Cornelius and his household to be baptized; but that he would have withstood God, had he refused to preach the gospel to that Gentile family.

 

        Verse 18 shows that Peter’s defense satisfied his accusers, and is further proof that the point in question was not water baptism, but the salvation of the Gentiles.

 

        “When they heard these things, they held their peace, and glorified God, saying, Then hath God also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life.” Ver. 18.

 

        Neither do Peter’s words in verse 16, “Then remembered I the word of the Lord,” etc., show, as they affirm, that Peter on that occasion found out that he had been wrong in teaching baptism, for immediately after these words came to his mind, which was at the time the Holy Ghost fell upon Cornelius and his household (Read carefully verses 15, 16), he commanded them to be baptized in water (Acts 10:44-48).

 

        Another point worthy of mentioning here is, that nineteen years after these words of the Lord came into Peter’s mind, in his first general epistle, he teaches water baptism to be an essential ordinance of the New Testament. See I Pet. 3:21. So it is very evident that Peter never received any new light on the subject of baptism, causing him to turn antiordinance. But evidences from every direction prove the Quaker theories false.

 

        We will cite one more instance of the administration of water baptism. We read of twelve brethren at Ephesus who were converted and baptized by Apollos, a disciple of John. Acts 18:24-28; 19:3, 7. Apollos at that time knew nothing of the coming of the Saviour, because we read of him, that he knew “only the baptism of John.” Acts 18:25.

 

        After Apollos had closed his meeting and had left Ephesus, “Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus; and finding certain disciples [They were those twelve converts of Apollos], he said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John’s baptism. Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.” Acts 19:1-6.

 

        The foregoing language shows clearly that the twelve Ephesians had been baptized unto John’s baptism, but now they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus; that is, received Christian baptism, and apart from both these baptisms, when Paul laid his hands upon them they received the Holy Ghost. Surely none would deny that water baptism was applied in their case.

 

        We sometimes hear ordinance-opposers say, “Water baptism is of John, therefore, properly ended with John’s mission.” We will admit that John’s baptism did end with his mission. But the fact that the Ephesians were rebaptized under Paul’s instructions, and perhaps by his own hands, when they heard his explanation of the difference between John’s baptism and Christian baptism, proves that the renowned apostle himself understood that there was a water baptism that did not begin and end with John the Baptist.

 

        Ordinance-fighters make a great hobby of Paul’s words in the first chapter of 1 Corinthians. But, as with other Scriptures, they place a different construction upon them from that intended by Paul. Surely it would not be sensible to conclude that this great apostle taught against baptism in his first epistle to the Corinthians, when his Roman epistle, written a year later, clearly sets forth baptism as a Christian ordinance. See Rom. 6:4. Paul did not say, “I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius (1 Cor. 1:14)” because he had received new light on the subject of baptism, but he himself assigns his reason for so saying, with his very next breath: “Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.” Ver. 15.

 

        His words, “Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel” (verse 17), prove nothing in favor of the antiordinance heresy. If he was not sent to administer baptism, he was sent to preach the gospel, and was therefore sent to preach baptism, for baptism is a part of the gospel. If he had never baptized a single individual by his own hands, yet preached baptism, the arguments still lie on the side of baptism. But Paul testifies in the contest that he did baptize Crispus and Gaius, and the household of Stephanas. This proves that, though he was not especially sent to baptize, whenever there were no other brethren present to administer baptism, he did the work himself. So in this, as in all other instances, the Quaker theory fades into oblivion.

 

        Heb. 6:1, 2 is also used by antiordinance people against the doctrine of baptism. The text reads as follows: “Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God, of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment.”

 

        By carefully studying these verses in connection with the last three verses of the previous chapter, we clearly see that Paul classes the doctrine of baptism with the first principles of the doctrine of Christ; but no more so than repentance, faith toward God, resurrection of the dead, and the eternal judgment. If therefore Paul is to be understood to teach against baptism in Heb. 6:1, 2 then also we are to understand him to teach against the resurrection of the dead, the laying on of hands, and the general judgment; and also repentance and faith toward God. This would make him a rank infidel. Surely ordinance-fighters have not fully analyzed this twist of the inspired writings before they advanced it.

 

        Observe also that Paul tells the Hebrews, “Ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God.” Heb. 5:12. So Paul thought it was necessary that the Hebrew brethren have the doctrine of baptism with the other Christian doctrines mentioned above, taught to them again. This does not sound very much like a refutation of baptism. Nay, it establishes it more and more as a Christian ordinance.

       

        The true teaching of Paul unto the Hebrews, in the texts cited above, might be summed up as follows: The Hebrew brethren had been converted, but had not gone on unto perfection; that is, had not been sanctified (Heb. 10:14). Paul urges them to “go on unto perfection.” It appears also that they had to some extent strayed away from the doctrine of baptism, and the other very essential doctrines of Christianity, hence it became necessary that these doctrines be taught them again. How any man can see in this the least argument against water baptism is a mystery to me.

 

        We believe that we have now produced abundant evidence to convince any teachable person that baptism is an ordinance of the New Testament, and we leave the subject with you in the fear of God.

 

 

  Communion 

        The word “communion” is applied by the apostle Paul to an ordinance of the New Testament which was instituted by the Saviour the night of his apprehension, which ordinance is also denominated, “The Lord’s Supper.” The following are Paul’s words: “The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?” I Cor. 10:16. Nothing is more evident than that Paul here refers to the observance by the apostolic church of the very commemorative ordinance instituted by our Lord the night he was betrayed by Judas, of which he says they all partook. Verse 17.

 

        The account of the institution of this ordinance has been handed down to us by four of the inspired writers – Matt. 26:26-28; Mark 14:22-24; Luke 22:19, 20; 1 Cor. 11:23-29. Matthew was an eye witness. Mark and Luke were apostolic men; hence, received the account from the apostles. Paul testifies that he had received his information from the Lord. They all agree as to the constituents and design of the institution. They tell us that Jesus instituted it of the product of the field, and the fruit of the vine, and that it is a monument erected in remembrance of his death.

 

        Ordinance-fighters argue concerning the communion supper as they do concerning baptism, that, inasmuch as it was instituted before the Saviour’s death, which abolished the Old Testament and brought the New Testament into force, it was of the Old Testament and ended with it. We have shown in a previous chapter that with the same argument we could as successfully argue the abolition of the entire New Testament, for while it was not committed to writing, it was all introduced before the Lord’s death; and now we will proceed to show the foolishness of the argument in reference to the ordinance under consideration.

 

        This ordinance, as we have seen, was to be observed in remembrance of the Lord’s death. How then say the Quakers that it belonged to that dispensation which was brought to an end with that event? Can an event be commemorated before it transpires? If the communion supper was abolished at Christ’s death, the New Testament is mistaken in its teaching that it was intended by the Saviour to be observed in remembrance of his death.

 

        Our Quaker friends may pause when they come to this point and ask, “Can it be clearly proved by Scripture that the eating of the bread and drinking of the wine were intended by our Lord as a commemoration of his death?” To answer this question we have but to call the reader’s attention to the commandment of the Lord with which he enjoined this ordinance upon us – “This do in remembrance of me.” Luke 22:19. – What particular event in his life did Jesus mean the communion supper should commemorate? “As often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do show the Lord’s death till he come.” 1 Cor. 11:26. Mark well the words: “till he come,” which show that this ordinance is to be observed right up to the very second coming of Christ.

 

        If the Quaker theory be true, this text should read: “As often as they ate that bread, and drank that cup, they did show the Lord’s death till he died.” A Quaker Bible would contain some strange readings.

 

        Again, if the theory of antiordinancism is correct, this ordinance was abolished no later than twenty hours after it had been instituted, and the apostles had not a single opportunity of obeying the commandment, “This do in remembrance of me.” Surely Quakerism is a mass of confusion.

 

        The most substantial argument which we can offer to prove the communion supper of the new dispensation, is the very words Jesus uttered on the occasion of its institution. These words have been carefully penned down by all of the four inspired writers who have left us a record of the event. The following are their respective accounts.

 

        “For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.” Matt. 26:28.

        “And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many.” Mark 14:24.

        “This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you.” Luke 22:20.

        “This cup is the new testament in my blood.” 1 Cor. 11:25.

 

        Is it reasonable that we should believe the ordinance-fighters’ saying that the communion supper is of the Old Testament, when the Word of God four times tells us it is of the New Testament?

 

        We will now proceed to the consideration of another antiordinance dodge. After they have been driven by the multiplicity of scriptural evidences, to the admission of the fact that Jesus instituted the communion supper for, and enjoined it upon New Testament saints, we often hear them assert that it is to be observed only in a spiritual sense. Then they fly to some passages of Scripture teaching a spiritual feast, promised by Christ to his faithful followers, saying, “These set forth the true supper of the Lord.” The following are among the principle texts thus used by them.

 

        “Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and sup with him, and he with me.” Rev. 3:20.

 

        “Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him. As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father; so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me. This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live forever.” John 6:53-58.

 

        That these texts teach a sublime spiritual feast to be enjoyed by faithful Christians, is indisputable. But they afford us no proof that there is no literal ordinance called the Lord’s Supper. We should apply such texts as speak of spiritual things, to spiritual things; and such texts as speak of literal thinks to literal things. It is both erroneous and absurd, to attempt to identify Scriptures which speak of literal things, with those which speak of spiritual things.

 

        The Bible student will observe the following clear distinctions between the feast of the foregoing texts and the             ordinance instituted by our Lord the night of his betrayal.

        1. The one is spiritual, the other literal.

        2. The Scriptures which record the spiritual supper will not admit literalizing, while those Scriptures which record the literal supper will not admit spiritualizing.

        3. The Scriptures which speak of the spiritual supper are addressed to sinners, while those which speak of the literal supper are addressed to Christians.

        4. The spiritual supper is a continuous feast. When we open our heart unto him who stands and knocks at the door, he does not come in as a guest to dine with us and then depart, but he says, “We will come unto him, and make our abode with him.” John 14:23. The literal supper is to be eaten at intervals. “This do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.” 1 Cor. 11:25. “For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup,” etc. Ver. 26.

        5. The terms “Lord’s supper” and “communion” are applied to the literal ordinance, but never to the spiritual feast of the soul.

        6. Of the literal supper men may partake unworthily (1 Cor. 11:27), but of the spiritual supper none but the worthy can partake (I Cor. 10:21).

 

        Can the communion supper, in any case, be observed in a spiritual manner? No, because the institution of it was literal. A spiritual observance can never be reckoned in obedience to a commandment to imitate a literal exemplification. Had Jesus exemplified in a spiritual manner the communion supper (a thing indeed impossible), it would have been of a spiritual nature and could have been observed only in a spiritual manner. Or if, when he had literally exemplified this ordinance, he had made the statement that he was intending only to teach a spiritual lesson, he would have instituted a spiritual ordinance, and we could, without difficulty, have understood that it was to be spiritually observed. But he gave us no such instructions, but when he administered literal bread and literal wine, he commanded, saying, “This do in remembrance of me,” which commandment can only be obeyed by partaking of literal emblems such as Jesus administered.

 

        The apostolical church believed the communion supper to be a literal institution, because they taught and practiced a literal ordinance. An ordinance meeting held by them is upon record in the New Testament.

 

        “And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.” Acts 20:7.

 

        The breaking of bread mentioned above, signifies the observance of the communion supper. Some suppose this text to teach a weekly observance of the ordinances by the apostolic church. But whether this be true or not it is evident that the text proves at least one observance of a literal Lord’s supper, thirty years after the death of Christ, which is abundant proof that the apostles understood Christ’s institution of the communion supper literally.

 

        Paul in his first epistle to the Corinthians (A. D. 59), classes the ordinance of communion with the ordinances of the New Testament, which he commanded them to observe. I Cor. 11:2, 23-25.

 

        We believe we have now produced Scriptttres to convince any teachable mind that the literal communion supper is an ordinance instituted by Christ, and we turn our attention to the third ordinance of the New Testament.

 

 

 

  Feet-Washing 

        We now come to consider the ordinance which has been spurned and scorned by modern professors more than all the rest of the commandments of our Saviour. Many who faithfully labor to refute the false arguments offered by antiordinance people against the Lord’s supper, employ the same antiordinance arguments against the ordinance of feet-washing.

 

        The most prominent religious sects disdain the ordinance-fighter’s argument that the communion supper was of the Old Testament, yet they do not scruple to offer the same antiordinance theory against the observance of the ordinance of feet-washing.

 

        The saying of the Quakers, that the Lord’s supper is to be spiritually observed, they regard as an outrage on the Bible, yet the same proof is among the first objections they raise against literally obeying the Lord’s command to wash one another’s feet.

 

        How inconsistent to raise objections against an argument offered by another against one institution, and employ the same argument yourself against another institution of the same rank.

 

        Many other objections are raised against feet-washing, both by those who reject the ordinances and by those who profess to believe in them. These we will refute in this chapter.

 

        The institutions of the ordinance under consideration is recorded in the thirteenth chapter of John. For the convenience of the reader, we will insert the entire account, dividing it into verses as in the Bible; thus making it possible to find any quotation, hereafter referred to, at a glance.

 

John 13:1-17

        1. “Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.

        2. And supper being ended, the devil having now put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon’s son, to betray him;

        3. Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God;

        4. He riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel, and girded himself.

        5. After that he poured water into a basin, and began to wash the disciples’ feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded.

        6 Then cometh he to Simon Peter: and Peter saith unto him, Lord, dost thou wash my feet?

        7. Jesus answered and said unto him, What I do thou knowest not now; but thou shalt know hereafter.

        8. Peter saith unto him, Thou shalt never wash my feet. Jesus answered him, If I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me.

        9. Simon Peter saith unto him, Lord, not my feet only, but also my hands and my head.

        10. Jesus saith unto him, He that is washed needeth not save to wash his feet, but is clean every whit: and ye are clean, but not all.

        11. For he knew who should betray him; therefore said he, Ye are not all clean.

        12. So after he had washed their feet, and had taken his garments, and was set down again, he said unto them, Know ye what I have done to you?

        13. Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.

        14. If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another’s feet.

        15. For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.

        16. Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him.

        17. If ye know these things, happy are ye if ye do them.”

 

 

        One of the principle objections raised against the ordinance of feet-washing, by those who trample upon this humble ordinance, is that Jesus did not intend the washing of his disciples’ feet by himself as an example to be imitated by us. This false argument is best refuted by Jesus’ own words in verses 14, 15. “If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another’s feet. For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.” Do not these words clearly show that Jesus taught feet-washing as a thing to be observed by Christians? The fact that Jesus denominated the washing of his disciples’ feet an example proves it to be intended for imitation, for nothing can be properly called an example that is not intended for imitation. But says one, “These words are not imperative.” It is true that they are not written in the imperative, but in the potential mode, but this is no proof that feet-washing is not obligatory upon Christians, because duties are often set forth in the potential mode in the New Testament.

 

        John says, “Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.” I John 4:11.

 

        James says, “Go to now, ye that say, To-day or tomorrow we will go into such a city, and continue there a year, and buy, and sell, and get gain …for that ye ought to say, If the Lord will, we shall live, and do this, or that.” James 4:13-15.

 

        Paul says, “So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies.” Eph. 5:28.

 

        Everybody acknowledges a duty in each of these verses, yet they are not set forth in the imperative mode, but in the potential, the same as feet-washing. How inconsistent to say “Ye ought to love one another” implies a duty, and “Men ought to love their wives” implies duty, but “Ye also ought to wash one another’s feet” implies a nonessential! Such is the dilemma into which men are driven when they endeavor to explain away the ordinance of feet-washing. The fact is, both ought and should always imply obligation. Webster’s Dictionary, discussing these two words, says, “Both words imply obligation…Should may imply merely an obligat